Post No 28 OS MCQ

Multiple Choice Questions On Operating System

1) The collection of processes on the disk that is waiting to be brought into memory for execution forms the ___________ 
1 Ready queue 
2 Device queue 
3 Input queue 
4 Priority queue 
Ans ) 3

2) Demand paged memory allocation 
1 allows the virtual address space to be independent of the physical memory 
2 allows the virtual address space to be a multiple of the physical memory size 
3 allows deadlock tobe detected in paging schemes 
4 is present only in Windows NT 
Ans ) 1 

3) Which is not an Operating System ? 
1 Windows 95 
2 MS-DOS 
3 Windows 3.1 
4 Windows 2000 
Ans ) 3 

4) The operating system manages ________. 
1 Memory 
2 Processor 
3 Disk and I/O devices 
4 All of the above 
Ans ) 4 

5) It is not the layer of the Operating system. 
1 Kernel 
2 Shell 
3 Application program 
4 Critcal Section 
Ans ) 4 

6) ___________ begins at the root and follows a path down to the specified file 
1 Relative path name 
2 Absolute path name 
3 Standalone name 
4 All of the above 
Ans ) 2 

7) Who is called a supervisor of computer acitvity ? 
1 CPU 
2 Operating system 
3 Control unit 
4 Application Program 
Ans ) 2 

8) Consider the two statements. (A) Protection is an internal problem. (B) Security is considered as an external environment within which the system works. Which of the statement is not true? 
1 Only A 
2 Only B 
3 Both A and B 
4 None of the above 
Ans ) 4 

9) The process related to process control, file management, device management, information about system and communication that is requested by any higher level language can be performed by __________. 
1 Editors 
2 Compilers 
3 System Call 
4 Caching 
Ans ) 3 

10) Mutual exclusion 
1 if one process is in a critical region others are excluded 
2 prevents deadlock 
3 requires semaphores to implement 
4 is found only in the Windows NT operating system 
Ans ) 1 

11) Which scheduler controls the degree of multiprogramming? 
1 Short term scheduler 
2 Long term scheduler 
3 Middle term scheduler 
4 None of the above 
Ans ) 2 

12) What is the name of the software which can be legally compiled and often used for free? 
1 Shareware program 
2 Public domain program 
3 Firmware program 
4 Mind Ware 
Ans ) 2 

13) The problem of fragmentation arises in ________. 
1 Static storage allocation 
2 Stack allocation storage 
3 Stack allocation with dynamic binding 
4 Heap allocation 
Ans ) 4 

14) In interactive environments such as time-sharing systems, the primary requirement is to provide reasonably good response time and in general, to share system resources equitably. In such situations, the scheduling algorithm that is most popularly applied is ________. 
1 Shortest Remaining Time Next (SRTN) Scheduling 
2 Priority Based Preemptive Scheduling 
3 Round Robin Scheduling 
4 None of the above 
Ans ) 3 

15) Thrashing occurs ________. 
1 when excessive swapping takes place 
2 when you thrash your computer 
3 whenever deadlock occurs 
4 when no swapping takes place 
Ans ) 1 

16) Boundary registers ________. 
1 Are available in temporary program variable storage 
2 Are only necessary with fixed partitions 
3 Track the beginning and ending the program 
4 Track page boundaries 
Ans ) 3 

17) The principle of locality of reference justifies the use of ________. 
1 Virtual Memory 
2 Interrupts 
3 Main memory 
4 Cache memory 
Ans ) 4 

18) The section of code which accesses shared variables is called as __________. 
1 Critical section 
2 Block 
3 Procedure 
4 Semaphore 
Ans ) 1 

19) Thrashing ________. 
1 Reduces page I/O 
2 Decreases the degree of multiprogramming 
3 Implies excessive page I/O 
4 Improve the system performance 
Ans ) 3 

20) In memory management , a technique called as paging, physical memory is broken into fixed-sized blocks called ___________. 
1 Pages 
2 Frames 
3 Blocks 
4 Segments 
Ans ) 2 

21) The state of a process after it encounters an I/O instruction is __________. 
1 Ready 
2 Blocked/Waiting 
3 Idle 
4 Running 
Ans ) 2 

22) In one of the deadlock prevention methods, impose a total ordering of all resource types, and require that each process requests resources in an increasing order of enumeration. This voilates the _______________ condition of deadlock 
1 Mutual exclusion 
2 Hold and Wait 
3 Circular Wait 
4 No Preemption 
Ans ) 3 

23) Which of the following file name extension suggests that the file is Backup copy of another file ? 
1 TXT 
2 COM 
3 BAS 
4 BAK 
Ans ) 4 

24) The degree of Multiprogramming is controlled by 
1 CPU Scheduler 
2 Context Switching 
3 Long-term Scheduler 
4 Medium term Scheduler 
Ans ) 3 

25) The higher versions of operating systems are so written that programs designed for earlier versions can still be run. What is it called ? 
1 Up gradiability 
2 Upward mobility 
3 Universality 
4 Upward Compatibility 
Ans ) 4 

26) A scheduling algorithm is fair 
1 if no process faces starvation 
2 if a process is starved, detect it and run it with high priority 
3 if it uses semaphores 
4 only if a queue is used for scheduling 
Ans ) 1 

27) A critical region 
1 is a piece of code which only one process executes at a time 
2 is a region prone to deadlock 
3 is a piece of code which only a finite number of processes execute 
4 is found only in Windows NT operation system 
Ans ) 1 

28) Semaphore can be used for solving __________. 
1 Wait & signal 
2 Deadlock 
3 Synchronization 
4 Priority 
Ans ) 3 

29) The operating system of a computer serves as a software interface between the user and the ________. 
1 Hardware 
2 Peripheral 
3 Memory 
4 Screen 
Ans ) 1 

30) What is the name of the software which deals with the running of the actual computer and not with the programming problems? 
1 Operating system 
2 System program 
3 Object program 
4 Source program 
Ans ) 2

Post 25 Agile Software Development

                            Post 25

Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Agile Software Development”.

1. Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development
a) Individuals and interactions
b) Working software
c) Customer collaboration
d) All of the mentioned

Answer:d
Explanation: None.

2. Agile Software Development is based on
a) Incremental Development
b) Iterative Development
c) Linear Development
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development

Answer:d
Explanation: The software is developed in increments with the customer specifying the requirements to be included in each increment and the highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software.

3. Which on of the following is not an agile method?
a) XP
b) 4GT
c) AUP
d) All of the mentioned

Answer:b
Explanation: The 4GT approach does not incorporate iteration and the continuous feedback,which is the fundamental aspect of an agile method.

4. Agility is defined as the ability of a project team to respond rapidly to a change.
a) True
b) False

Answer:b
Explanation: The aim of agile methods is to reduce overheads in the software process and to be able to respond quickly to changing requirements without excessive rework.

5. How is plan driven development different from agile development ?
a) Outputs are decided through a process of negotiation during the software development process
b) Specification, design, implementation and testing are interleaved
c) Iteration occurs within activities
d) All of the menti

Answer:c
Explanation: A plan-driven approach to software engineering is based around separate development stages with the outputs to be produced at each of these stages planned in advance.

6. How many phases are there in Scrum ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases

Answer:b
Explanation: There are three phases in Scrum.The initial phase is an outline planning phase followed by a series of sprint cycles and project closure phase.

7. Agile methods seem to work best when team members have a relatively high skill level.
a) True
b) False

Answer:a
Explanation: None.

8. Which of the following does not apply to agility to a software process?
a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
b) Only essential work products are produced
c) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
d) All of the mentioned

Answer:c
Explanation: Testing is a major part of each software development process which cant be avoided.

9. Which three framework activities are present in Adaptive Software Development(ASD) ?
a) analysis, design, coding
b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development
c) speculation, collaboration, learning
d) all of the mentioned

Answer:c
Explanation: None.

10. In agile development it is more important to build software that meets the customers’ needs today than worry about features that might be needed in the future.
a) True
b) False

Answer:a

Post :23 Built-in Commands in Linux Bash Shell

                 🎂Poster::23 🎂
Built-in Commands in Linux Bash Shell.

1. Which command sets up shorthand for command or command line?
a) set
b) alias
c) new
d) echo

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. What is the function of bind command in bash shell?
a) defining new macros
b) defining new key bindings for existing commands
c) dumping the installed key bindings
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. The command ‘compgen -c’ shows
a) all variable names
b) all system wide aliases
c) full list of all commands
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. Which statement resumes the next iteration of a for, while, select, or untill loop?
a) continue
b) break
c) complete
d) command

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Which command prints the directory stack?
a) cd
b) dirs
c) popd
d) pushd

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. The command ‘disown -r’
a) removes all jobs
b) removes all running jobs
c) marks jobs to not receive SIGHUP when bash exits
d) marks all jobs

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. The command ‘enable -n ‘
a) enables the specified built-in command
b) disables the specified built-in command
c) print the status of the command
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Which command can create environment variable?
a) export
b) set
c) read
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. Which command concatenate the specified argument into a single command, then execute the command?
a) fc
b) eval
c) exec
d) getopts

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. The command ‘hash’
a) manages a internal hash table
b) find and remember the full path name of the specified command
c) displays used command names and the number of hits
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

Post No:. 22 Bash Shell programming

                  Post No :22

This set of Linux / Unix questions and answers focuses on Command History and Job Control in Bash Shell programming

1. fc stands for
a) find command
b) fix command
c) both find & fix command
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation:’fc -l’ is used to list history of commands and ‘fc -e’ to edit them and ‘history’ command also provides the histroy of commands.

2. Which command is used to reexecute the previous command?
a) !!
b) !cat
c) !3
d) !$

Answer: a
Explanation:’!cat’ will reexecute the last cat command, ‘!3’ will reexecute the third last command and ‘!$’ will execute the last argument of previous command.

3. Which one of the following is not correct about job control in bash shell?
a) it is the ability to stop and resume any process running in shell at a later point
b) user employs this facility via an interactive interface supplied by the kernel’s terminal driver and bash
c) it is the ability to create any process
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. Which command allows to view the current jobs being handled by the shell?
a) jobs
b) view
c) show
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. What is job number?
a) same as PID
b) a unique number, assigned to each job in shell
c) same as PID and a unique number, assigned to each job in shell
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. Ctrl-Z key combination
a) generates a SIGINT signal
b) stops the process running in the shell
c) kills the process running in the shell
d) generates a SIGINT signal & kills the process running in the shell

Answer: b
Explanation: Ctrl-Z key combination generates a SIGTSTP signal and stops the process running in the shell.

7. Which command brings a background job into the foreground?
a) fg
b) bg
c) jobs %1
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: bg command brings a foreground job into the background.

8. ‘kill %s’ command will
a) terminate the job whose command line starts with s
b) terminate the last job
c) terminate the first job
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. ‘stty tostop’ command will
a) stop all jobs running in the shell
b) stop background jobs if they try to send output to the terminal
c) this is not a valid command
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. Which command terminates a running process by name of the process?
a) kill
b) pkill
c) killall
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None