Post No 28 OS MCQ

Multiple Choice Questions On Operating System

1) The collection of processes on the disk that is waiting to be brought into memory for execution forms the ___________ 
1 Ready queue 
2 Device queue 
3 Input queue 
4 Priority queue 
Ans ) 3

2) Demand paged memory allocation 
1 allows the virtual address space to be independent of the physical memory 
2 allows the virtual address space to be a multiple of the physical memory size 
3 allows deadlock tobe detected in paging schemes 
4 is present only in Windows NT 
Ans ) 1 

3) Which is not an Operating System ? 
1 Windows 95 
2 MS-DOS 
3 Windows 3.1 
4 Windows 2000 
Ans ) 3 

4) The operating system manages ________. 
1 Memory 
2 Processor 
3 Disk and I/O devices 
4 All of the above 
Ans ) 4 

5) It is not the layer of the Operating system. 
1 Kernel 
2 Shell 
3 Application program 
4 Critcal Section 
Ans ) 4 

6) ___________ begins at the root and follows a path down to the specified file 
1 Relative path name 
2 Absolute path name 
3 Standalone name 
4 All of the above 
Ans ) 2 

7) Who is called a supervisor of computer acitvity ? 
1 CPU 
2 Operating system 
3 Control unit 
4 Application Program 
Ans ) 2 

8) Consider the two statements. (A) Protection is an internal problem. (B) Security is considered as an external environment within which the system works. Which of the statement is not true? 
1 Only A 
2 Only B 
3 Both A and B 
4 None of the above 
Ans ) 4 

9) The process related to process control, file management, device management, information about system and communication that is requested by any higher level language can be performed by __________. 
1 Editors 
2 Compilers 
3 System Call 
4 Caching 
Ans ) 3 

10) Mutual exclusion 
1 if one process is in a critical region others are excluded 
2 prevents deadlock 
3 requires semaphores to implement 
4 is found only in the Windows NT operating system 
Ans ) 1 

11) Which scheduler controls the degree of multiprogramming? 
1 Short term scheduler 
2 Long term scheduler 
3 Middle term scheduler 
4 None of the above 
Ans ) 2 

12) What is the name of the software which can be legally compiled and often used for free? 
1 Shareware program 
2 Public domain program 
3 Firmware program 
4 Mind Ware 
Ans ) 2 

13) The problem of fragmentation arises in ________. 
1 Static storage allocation 
2 Stack allocation storage 
3 Stack allocation with dynamic binding 
4 Heap allocation 
Ans ) 4 

14) In interactive environments such as time-sharing systems, the primary requirement is to provide reasonably good response time and in general, to share system resources equitably. In such situations, the scheduling algorithm that is most popularly applied is ________. 
1 Shortest Remaining Time Next (SRTN) Scheduling 
2 Priority Based Preemptive Scheduling 
3 Round Robin Scheduling 
4 None of the above 
Ans ) 3 

15) Thrashing occurs ________. 
1 when excessive swapping takes place 
2 when you thrash your computer 
3 whenever deadlock occurs 
4 when no swapping takes place 
Ans ) 1 

16) Boundary registers ________. 
1 Are available in temporary program variable storage 
2 Are only necessary with fixed partitions 
3 Track the beginning and ending the program 
4 Track page boundaries 
Ans ) 3 

17) The principle of locality of reference justifies the use of ________. 
1 Virtual Memory 
2 Interrupts 
3 Main memory 
4 Cache memory 
Ans ) 4 

18) The section of code which accesses shared variables is called as __________. 
1 Critical section 
2 Block 
3 Procedure 
4 Semaphore 
Ans ) 1 

19) Thrashing ________. 
1 Reduces page I/O 
2 Decreases the degree of multiprogramming 
3 Implies excessive page I/O 
4 Improve the system performance 
Ans ) 3 

20) In memory management , a technique called as paging, physical memory is broken into fixed-sized blocks called ___________. 
1 Pages 
2 Frames 
3 Blocks 
4 Segments 
Ans ) 2 

21) The state of a process after it encounters an I/O instruction is __________. 
1 Ready 
2 Blocked/Waiting 
3 Idle 
4 Running 
Ans ) 2 

22) In one of the deadlock prevention methods, impose a total ordering of all resource types, and require that each process requests resources in an increasing order of enumeration. This voilates the _______________ condition of deadlock 
1 Mutual exclusion 
2 Hold and Wait 
3 Circular Wait 
4 No Preemption 
Ans ) 3 

23) Which of the following file name extension suggests that the file is Backup copy of another file ? 
1 TXT 
2 COM 
3 BAS 
4 BAK 
Ans ) 4 

24) The degree of Multiprogramming is controlled by 
1 CPU Scheduler 
2 Context Switching 
3 Long-term Scheduler 
4 Medium term Scheduler 
Ans ) 3 

25) The higher versions of operating systems are so written that programs designed for earlier versions can still be run. What is it called ? 
1 Up gradiability 
2 Upward mobility 
3 Universality 
4 Upward Compatibility 
Ans ) 4 

26) A scheduling algorithm is fair 
1 if no process faces starvation 
2 if a process is starved, detect it and run it with high priority 
3 if it uses semaphores 
4 only if a queue is used for scheduling 
Ans ) 1 

27) A critical region 
1 is a piece of code which only one process executes at a time 
2 is a region prone to deadlock 
3 is a piece of code which only a finite number of processes execute 
4 is found only in Windows NT operation system 
Ans ) 1 

28) Semaphore can be used for solving __________. 
1 Wait & signal 
2 Deadlock 
3 Synchronization 
4 Priority 
Ans ) 3 

29) The operating system of a computer serves as a software interface between the user and the ________. 
1 Hardware 
2 Peripheral 
3 Memory 
4 Screen 
Ans ) 1 

30) What is the name of the software which deals with the running of the actual computer and not with the programming problems? 
1 Operating system 
2 System program 
3 Object program 
4 Source program 
Ans ) 2

Post 25 Agile Software Development

                            Post 25

Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Agile Software Development”.

1. Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development
a) Individuals and interactions
b) Working software
c) Customer collaboration
d) All of the mentioned

Answer:d
Explanation: None.

2. Agile Software Development is based on
a) Incremental Development
b) Iterative Development
c) Linear Development
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development

Answer:d
Explanation: The software is developed in increments with the customer specifying the requirements to be included in each increment and the highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software.

3. Which on of the following is not an agile method?
a) XP
b) 4GT
c) AUP
d) All of the mentioned

Answer:b
Explanation: The 4GT approach does not incorporate iteration and the continuous feedback,which is the fundamental aspect of an agile method.

4. Agility is defined as the ability of a project team to respond rapidly to a change.
a) True
b) False

Answer:b
Explanation: The aim of agile methods is to reduce overheads in the software process and to be able to respond quickly to changing requirements without excessive rework.

5. How is plan driven development different from agile development ?
a) Outputs are decided through a process of negotiation during the software development process
b) Specification, design, implementation and testing are interleaved
c) Iteration occurs within activities
d) All of the menti

Answer:c
Explanation: A plan-driven approach to software engineering is based around separate development stages with the outputs to be produced at each of these stages planned in advance.

6. How many phases are there in Scrum ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases

Answer:b
Explanation: There are three phases in Scrum.The initial phase is an outline planning phase followed by a series of sprint cycles and project closure phase.

7. Agile methods seem to work best when team members have a relatively high skill level.
a) True
b) False

Answer:a
Explanation: None.

8. Which of the following does not apply to agility to a software process?
a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
b) Only essential work products are produced
c) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
d) All of the mentioned

Answer:c
Explanation: Testing is a major part of each software development process which cant be avoided.

9. Which three framework activities are present in Adaptive Software Development(ASD) ?
a) analysis, design, coding
b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development
c) speculation, collaboration, learning
d) all of the mentioned

Answer:c
Explanation: None.

10. In agile development it is more important to build software that meets the customers’ needs today than worry about features that might be needed in the future.
a) True
b) False

Answer:a

Post :23 Built-in Commands in Linux Bash Shell

                 🎂Poster::23 🎂
Built-in Commands in Linux Bash Shell.

1. Which command sets up shorthand for command or command line?
a) set
b) alias
c) new
d) echo

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. What is the function of bind command in bash shell?
a) defining new macros
b) defining new key bindings for existing commands
c) dumping the installed key bindings
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. The command ‘compgen -c’ shows
a) all variable names
b) all system wide aliases
c) full list of all commands
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. Which statement resumes the next iteration of a for, while, select, or untill loop?
a) continue
b) break
c) complete
d) command

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Which command prints the directory stack?
a) cd
b) dirs
c) popd
d) pushd

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. The command ‘disown -r’
a) removes all jobs
b) removes all running jobs
c) marks jobs to not receive SIGHUP when bash exits
d) marks all jobs

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. The command ‘enable -n ‘
a) enables the specified built-in command
b) disables the specified built-in command
c) print the status of the command
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Which command can create environment variable?
a) export
b) set
c) read
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. Which command concatenate the specified argument into a single command, then execute the command?
a) fc
b) eval
c) exec
d) getopts

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. The command ‘hash’
a) manages a internal hash table
b) find and remember the full path name of the specified command
c) displays used command names and the number of hits
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

Post No:. 22 Bash Shell programming

                  Post No :22

This set of Linux / Unix questions and answers focuses on Command History and Job Control in Bash Shell programming

1. fc stands for
a) find command
b) fix command
c) both find & fix command
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation:’fc -l’ is used to list history of commands and ‘fc -e’ to edit them and ‘history’ command also provides the histroy of commands.

2. Which command is used to reexecute the previous command?
a) !!
b) !cat
c) !3
d) !$

Answer: a
Explanation:’!cat’ will reexecute the last cat command, ‘!3’ will reexecute the third last command and ‘!$’ will execute the last argument of previous command.

3. Which one of the following is not correct about job control in bash shell?
a) it is the ability to stop and resume any process running in shell at a later point
b) user employs this facility via an interactive interface supplied by the kernel’s terminal driver and bash
c) it is the ability to create any process
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. Which command allows to view the current jobs being handled by the shell?
a) jobs
b) view
c) show
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. What is job number?
a) same as PID
b) a unique number, assigned to each job in shell
c) same as PID and a unique number, assigned to each job in shell
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. Ctrl-Z key combination
a) generates a SIGINT signal
b) stops the process running in the shell
c) kills the process running in the shell
d) generates a SIGINT signal & kills the process running in the shell

Answer: b
Explanation: Ctrl-Z key combination generates a SIGTSTP signal and stops the process running in the shell.

7. Which command brings a background job into the foreground?
a) fg
b) bg
c) jobs %1
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: bg command brings a foreground job into the background.

8. ‘kill %s’ command will
a) terminate the job whose command line starts with s
b) terminate the last job
c) terminate the first job
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. ‘stty tostop’ command will
a) stop all jobs running in the shell
b) stop background jobs if they try to send output to the terminal
c) this is not a valid command
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. Which command terminates a running process by name of the process?
a) kill
b) pkill
c) killall
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None

18 OS MCQ 4


4-1 Which one of the following is not the function of Operating System?
A. Resource Management
B. File Management
C. Networking
D. Processor Management

4-2 The Banker’s algorithm is used
A. to rectify deadlock
B. to detect deadlock
C. to prevent deadlock
D. to slove deadlock

4-3 Which of the following concept is best to preventing page faults?
A. Paging
B. The working set
C. Hit ratios
D. Address location resolution

4-4 Which of the following memory unit that processor can access more
rapidly
A. Main Memory
B. Virtual Memory
C. Cache memory
D. Read Only Memory

4-5 A page fault occurs when
A. the Deadlock happens
B. the Segmentation starts
C. the page is found in the memory
D. the page is not found in the memory

4-6 Bringing a page into memory only when it is needed, this
mechanism is called
A. Deadlock
B. Page Fault
C. Dormant Paging
D. Demand Paging

4-7 First-in-First-Out (FIFO) scheduling is
A. Non Preemptive Scheduling
B. Preemptive Scheduling
C. Fair Share Scheduling
D. Deadline Scheduling

4-8 Copying a process from memory to disk to allow space for other
processes is Called
A. Swapping
B. Deadlock
C. Demand Paging
D. Page Fault

4-9. The necessary conditions needed before deadlock can occur?
A. No Mutual Exclusion, Hold and wait, Preemption, Circular Wait
B. Mutual Exclusion, No Hold and wait, Preemption, Circular Wait
C. Mutual Exclusion, Hold and wait, No Preemption, Circular Wait
D. Mutual Exclusion, Hold and wait, Preemption, No Circular Wait

4-10 A program in execution is called
A. A Paging
B. A Process
C. A virtual memory
D. A Demand Page
  Answers
1 – C 2 – C 3 – B 4 – C 5 – D 
 6 – D 7 – A 8 – A 9 – C 10 – B

List of Windows commands

Post 20
The complete list of Windows commands

Command                                                   Description 

assoc Displays or modifies file name extension associations. Used alone, displays a                      list of all the current file name associations


at Schedules commands and programs to run on a computer at a specified time and                   date. Requires the Schedule service. Superseded by schtasks

attrib Configures file attributes read only, hidden, system

bootcfg Used to repair or edit the boot.ini file

cd or chdir Displays the name of the current directory or changes the current folder

chkdsk Checks hard drives for errors. With switches,does repairs.

cls Clears the screen

copy Copies a file from one location to another  

del Deletes one or more files

dir Displays a list of a folder's files and subfolders

diskpart Disk management shell. A suite of various commands

driverquery Displays a list of all installed device drivers and their properties. Requires                         administrator privileges. (Not available in Windows XP Home) 

echo Used to display a message or to turn off/on messages in batch scripts echo                           message

exit             Exits batch script or current command control
                                                          https://mcq4all.blogspot.in/
fc Compares two files and displays the differences between them  

find Searches for a text string in a file or files. Can also be used with output from                       another command.  
findstr Searches for text string patterns in a file using regular expressions
 
for Runs a specified command for each item in a set  

fsutil Displays and configures certain file system properties. A suite of various commands  

ftype Displays or modifies file types used in file name extension associations
 
getmac Returns the media access control (MAC) address for your network card

goto Directs the Windows command interpreter to a labeled line in a batch program

if Performs conditional processing in batch programs

ipconfig Displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values and refreshes  
                Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name                                       System (DNS)  settings  
                                                               https://mcq4all.blogspot.in/
md or mkdir Creates a directory (folder) or subdirectory (subfolder)  
more Displays one screen of output at a time. Used with another command that                                      has  extensive output

move Moves a file from one folder to another  

net A suite of various networking and service commands

netsh Network services shell . Complex suite of commands.  

netstat Displays active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening,                          Ethernet   statistics, the IP routing table, statistics for the IP, ICMP, TCP, and                      UDP protocols

path      Sets the command path in the PATH environment variable, which is the set of                  directories used to search for executable files  

pathping Provides information about network performance and conditions at intermediate hops between a source and destination
                                      https://mcq4all.blogspot.in/
pause Used in batch scripts  

ping Checks connectivity to other networked computers, routers, or Internet sites

popd, pushd Changes the directory being referenced in a command prompt. 
  Pushd changes the directory and stores the previous directory. 
Popd changes the current directory to the directory stored by the pushd   command  pushd somefolder  popd

powercfg Manages the power settings such as hibernation. Has numerous switches  
reg Adds, changes, and displays registry entries. A suite of various 
                                commands  

                                         https://mcq4all.blogspot.in/
rd or rmdir Deletes a directory (folder)  

ren or rename Changes the name of a file or a set of files  

sc               Used to obtain information about services and to configure them. A suite of                                         various commands  
                                       https://mcq4all.blogspot.in/
schtasks Schedules commands and programs to run periodically or at a specific time
 
set Displays, sets, or removes environment variables  

sfc System file checker scans and verifies the versions of all protected system files sfc                /scannow

shutdown Shuts down or restarts a computer  

sort Alphabetizes strings from a text file or the output of a command.


start Starts an application or opens a new command window

subst Associates a folder with a drive letter  

systeminfo Displays detailed configuration information about a computer and its  
                              operating system https://mcq4all.blogspot.in/

taskkill  Ends one or more tasks or processes  

tasklist     Displays a list of applications and services with their Process ID (PID) for all                    tasks   running  

tree Graphically displays the directory structure of a folder or drive tree somefolder

type Displays the contents of a text file

vssadmin For administering and configuring volume shadow copies  

xcopy Powerful command with many switches for copying and backing up files and                       folders

😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊😊 

                                                https://mcq4all.blogspot.in/


17 COMP N/W MCQ 7

7-1. DHCP Server provides _____ to the client.
A. Protocol
B. IP Address
C. MAC Address
D. Network Address

7-2. A set of rules that govern all aspects of information communication is
called
A. Server
B. Internet
C. Protocol
D. OSI Model

7-3. The processes on each machine that communicate at a given layer
are called
A. UDP process
B. Intranet process
C. Server technology
D. Peer-peer process

7-4. The duration of time it takes to send a message from one end of a
network to the other and back is called
A. Round Trip Time (RTT)
B. Full Duplex Time (FDT)
C. Circle Trip Time (CTT)
D. Data Travelling Time (DTT)

7-5. Which of the following layer is not network support layer?
A. Transport Layer
B. Network Layers
C. Data link Layer
D. Physical Layer

7-6. For error detection ________ is used by the higher layer protocols
(TCP/IP).
A. Bit-sum
B. Checksum
C. Data-sum
D. Error-bit

7-7. The amount of data that can be carried from one point to another
in a given time period is called
A. Scope
B. Capacity
C. Bandwidth
D. Limitation

7-8. Controlling access to a network by analyzing the incoming and
outgoing packets is called
A. IP Filtering
B. Data Filtering
C. Packet Filtering
D. Firewall Filtering

7-9. The management of data flow between computers or devices or
between nodes in a network is called
A. Flow control
B. Data Control
C. Data Management
D. Flow Management

7-10. Which of the following is not the possible ways of data exchange?
A. Simplex
B. Multiplex
C. Half-duplex
D. Full-duplex
  Answers
1 – B 2 – C 3 – D 4 – A 5 – A 
 6 – B 7 – C 8 – C 9 – A 10 – B

16 COMP N/W MCQ 6

6-1. What is the IP Address range of APIPA?
A. 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.0.254
B. 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.0.255
C. 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254
D. 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.255

6-2. Which of the following is correct in VLSM?
A. Can have subnets of different sizes
B. Subnets must be in same size
C. No required of subnet
D. All of above

6-3. What does the port number in a TCP connection specify?
A. It specifies the communication process on the two end systems
B. It specifies the quality of the data & connection
C. It specify the size of data
D. All of the above

6-4. The class-based addressing is also known as
A. Modern Model
B. Classful Model
C. Classless Model
D. Heterogeneous Model

6-5. Which of the following is correct in CIDR?
A. Class A includes Class B network
B. There are only two networks
C. There are high & low class network
D. There is no concept of class A, B, C networks

6-6. What is the size of Source and Destination IP address in IP header?
A. 4 bits
B. 8 bits
C. 16 bits
D. 32 bits

6-7. Which of the following is reliable communication?
A. TCP
B. IP
C. UPD
D. All of them

6-8. What is the typical range of Ephemeral ports?
A. 1 to 80
B. 1 to 1024
C. 80 to 8080
D. 1024 to 65535

6-9. What is the purpose of the PSH flag in the TCP header?
A. Typically used to indicate end of message
B. Typically used to indicate beginning of message
C. Typically used to push the message
D. Typically used to indicate stop the message

6-10. What is the natural mask for a class C Network?
A. 255.255.255.1
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.255.255.254
D. 255.255.255.255

 Answers
1 – C    2 – A 3 – A   4 – B 5 – D 
6 – D 7 – A  8 – D          9 – A  10 – B

15 MIX MCQ 1

1)The LRU algorithm
a)pages out pages that have not been used recently
b)pages out pages that have been least used recently
c)pages out pages that have been used recently
d)pages out of first page in a given order

ANS :
1)b
In Least Recently Used (LRU) algorithm is a Greedy algorithm where the page to be replaced is
least recently used.

2)Leaf Class is
a)A class with no subclass
b)A class with one subclass
c)A class having exactly two subclass
d)A class having more than one subclasses
ANS:
2)a
a leaf class is a class that should not be subclassed. This can be enforced either by
convention, or by using a language feature such as the final keyword in Java or the sealed
keyword in C#.


3)Interrupt enable instruction is
a)DI
b)EI
c)EPI
d)EAI
ANS:
3)b
The Enable Interrupts (EI) and Disable Interrupts (DI) instructions allow the MP to permit or
deny interrupts under program control. For the EI, the interrupts will be enabled following the completion of the next instruction following the EI. This allows at least one more instruction, perhaps a RET or JMP, to be executed before the MP allows itself to again be interrupted. For the DI, the interrupts are disabled immediately. No ags are aected.
HALT and NO-OP: The Halt (HLT) and No-Operation (NOP) instructions serve general utility
purposes. The Halt will stop the processor from further execution; it can be restarted again
only by an interrupt. A reset signal applied to the MP will abort the Halt. The MP may enter a
Hold state, as the result of another device wanting the bus, from a Halt, but will return to the
Halt state when the Hold is canceled. The NOP is simply a one-byte long place holder, which is passed through automatically without any data motion or action of any kind.

4)TLB is the acronym of
a)Translation Looking Buer
b)Translation Left Buer
c)Translation Look Block
d)Translation Lookaside Buer
ANS:
4)d
TLB(Translation Lookaside Buer)
is a cache that memory management hardware uses to
improve virtual address translation speed. TLBs can suer
performance issues from multitasking and code errors. This performance degradation is called a cache thrash. Cache thrash is caused by an ongoing computer activity that fails to progress due to excessive use of resources or conicts in the caching system.

5)The process of organising the memory into two banks to allow 8 and 16-bit data
operation is called
a)Indexed Mapping
b)Bank-switching
c)Memory Segmentation
d)Two-way memory interleaving
ANS:
5)d
It is a technique for compensating the relatively slow speed of DRAM(Dynamic RAM). In this
technique, the main memory is divided into memory banks which can be accessed
individually without any dependency on the other.A interleaved memory with ‘n’ banks is said to be ‘n’-way interleaved.


6)Feedback property is related to
a)Asynchronous
b)Synchronous
c)Flooding
d)Both(a) and (b)

ANS :
6)b
Feedback property is related to synchronous transmission.It is a data transfer method in
which a continuous stream of data signal is accompanied by timing signal to ensure that
transmitted receiver an in step with each other.


7)SSTF scheduling
a)SSTF chooses the pending request closest to current head position
b)Selects the request with the minimum seek time from the current head position
c)It may cause starvation of some requests
d)All of the above
ANS:
7)d
In SSTF (Shortest Seek Time First), requests having shortest seek time are executed first.
So, the seek time of every request is calculated in advance in queue and then they are scheduled according to their calculated seek time. As a result, the request near the disk arm will get executed first.
SSTF is certainly an improvement over FCFS as it decreases the average
response time and increases the throughput of system.There is great chance of starvation
would take place in SSTF.The reason or this is if there were lot of requests close to each other
the other requests will never be handled since the distance will always be greater.

8)For which of the data structure link lists are not suitable
a)Radix sort
b)Bubble sort
c)Binary search
d)Insertion sort
ANS:
8)c
We can’t apply binary search algorithm directly on linked list because here memory is not
contiguous ,so middle element can’t be found in o(1).We can use two pointer for nding
the middle element and then apply binary search on it.

9)Fetch and decode cycle is not required in
a)Direct addressing
b)Immediate addressing
c)Indirect addressing
d)All of the above
ANS:
9)b
An immediate operand has a constant value or an expression. When an instruction with two
operands uses immediate addressing, the first operand may be a register or memory
location, and the second operand is an immediate constant. The first operand denes the length of the data.

10)Which is the most commonly used transmission speeds in bps used in data
communication
a)1200
b)9600
c)4800
d)2400
ANS
10)b
Data are transmitted at the speed of electricity, but one bit at a time.Typically 8 bits are
required to transmit each character.A normally functioning voice circuit is theoretically able to transmit 9600 bits per second characters per second but the eective
transmission rate is about 1000 characters per second.

14 COMP N/W MCQ 5

5-1 Which of the following is not the External Security Threats?
A. Front-door Threats
B. Back-door Threats
C. Underground Threats
D. Denial of Service (DoS)

5-2 What is the Demilitarized Zone?
A. The area between firewall & connection to an external network
B. The area between ISP to Military area
C. The area surrounded by secured servers
D. The area surrounded by the Military

5-3 What is the full form of RAID ?
A. Redundant Array of Independent Disks
B. Redundant Array of Important Disks
C. Random Access of Independent Disks
D. Random Access of Important Disks

5-4 What is the maximum header size of an IP packet?
A. 32 bytes
B. 64 bytes
C. 30 bytes
D. 60 bytes

5-5 What is the size of Host bits in Class B of IP address?
A. 04
B. 08
C. 16
D. 32

5-6 What is the usable size of Network bits in Class B of IP address?
A. 04
B. 08
C. 14
D. 16

5-7 In which type of RAID, data is mirrored between two disks.
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 2
D. RAID 3

5-8 What do you mean by broadcasting in Networking?
A. It means addressing a packet to all machine
B. It means addressing a packet to some machine
C. It means addressing a packet to a particular machine
D. It means addressing a packet to except a particular machine

5-9 Which of the following is/are Protocols of Application?
A. FTP
B. DNS
C. Telnet
D. All of above

5-10 Which of the following protocol is/are defined in Transport layer?
A. FTP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. B & C
  Answers
1 – C          2 – A            3 – A           4 – D        5 – C 
6 – C         7 – B             8 – A            9 – D       10 – D

13 COMP N/W MCQ 4

*NOTE:Answer Key at bottom

4-1. What is the benefit of the Networking?
A. File Sharing
B. Easier access to Resources
C. Easier Backups
D. All of the Above

4-2. Which of the following is not the Networking Devices?
A. Gateways
B. Linux
C. Routers
D. Firewalls

4-3. What is the size of MAC Address?
A. 16-bits
B. 32-bits
C. 48-bits
D. 64-bits

4-4. Which of the following can be Software?
A. Routers
B. Firewalls
C. Gateway
D. Modems

4-5. What is the use of Ping command?
A. To test a device on the network is reachable
B. To test a hard disk fault
C. To test a bug in a Application
D. To test a Pinter Quality

4-6. MAC Address is the example of
A. Transport Layer
B. Data Link Layer
C. Application Layer
D. Physical Layer

4-7. Routing tables of a router keeps track of
A. MAC Address Assignments
B. Port Assignments to network devices
C. Distribute IP address to network devices
D. Routes to use for forwarding data to its destination

4-8. Layer-2 Switch is also called
A. Multiport Hub
B. Multiport Switch
C. Multiport Bridge
D. Multiport NIC

4-9. Difference between T568A and T568B is
A. Difference in wire color
B. Difference in number of wires
C. Just different length of wires
D. Just different manufacturer standards

4-10. The meaning of Straight-through Cable is
A. Four wire pairs connect to the same pin on each end
B. The cable Which Directly connects Computer to Computer
C. Four wire pairs not twisted with each other
D. The cable which is not twisted


 Answers
 1 – D
 2 – B
 3 – C
 4 – B
 5 – A
 6 – B
 7 – D
 8 – C
 9 – D
 10 – A

12 DBMS MCQ 6

1. Using which language can a user request information from a database ?
a) Query
b) Relational
c) Structural
d) Compiler


Answer:a
Explanation:Query language is a method through which the database entries can be accessed.
2. Student(ID, name, dept name, tot_cred)
In this query which attribute form the primary key?
a) Name
b) Dept
c) Tot_cred
d) ID


Answer:d
Explanation:The attributes name ,dept and tot_cred can have same values unlike ID .
3. Which one of the following is a procedural language ?
a) Domain relational calculus
b) Tuple relational calculus
c) Relational algebra
d) Query language


Answer:c
Explanation:Domain and Tuple relational calculus are non-procedural language.Query language is a method through which the database entries can be accessed.
4. The_____ operation allows the combining of two relations by merging pairs of tuples, one from each relation, into a single tuple.
a) Select
b) Join
c) Union
d) Intersection


Answer:b
Explanation:Join finds the common tuple in the relations and combines it.
5. The result which operation contains all pairs of tuples from the two relations, regardless of whether their attribute values match.
a) Join
b) Cartesian product
c) Intersection
d) Set difference


Answer:b
Explanation:Cartesian product is the multiplication of all the values in the attributes.
6. The _______operation performs a set union of two “similarly structured” tables
a) Union
b) Join
c) Product
d) Intersect


Answer:a
Explanation:Union just combines all the values of relations of same attributes.
7. The most commonly used operation in relational algebra for projecting a set of tuple from a relation is
a) Join
b) Projection
c) Select
d) Union


Answer:c
Explanation:Select is used to view the tuples of the relation with or without some constraints.
8. The _______ operator takes the results of two queries and returns only rows that appear in both result sets.
a) Union
b) Intersect
c) Difference
d) Projection


Answer:b
Explanation:The union operator gives the result which is the union of two queries and difference is the one where query which is not a part of second query .
9. A ________ is a pictorial depiction of the schema of a database that shows the relations in the database, their attributes, and primary keys and foreign keys.
a) Schema diagram
b) Relational algebra
c) Database diagram
d) Schema flow


Answer:a
Explanation:None.
10. The _________ provides a set of operations that take one or more relations as input and return a relation as an output.
a) Schematic representation
b) Relational algebra
c) Scheme diagram
d) Relation flow


Answer:b
Explanation:None.

11 DBMS MCQ 5

1. Which one of the following is a set of one or more attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify a record?
a) Candidate key
b) Sub key
c) Super key
d) Foreign key


Answer:c
Explanation:Super key is the superset of all the keys in a relation.
2. Consider attributes ID , CITY and NAME . Which one of this can be considered as a super key ?
a) NAME
b) ID
c) CITY
d) CITY , ID


Answer:b
Explanation:Here the id is the only attribute which can be taken as a key. Other attributes are not uniquely identified .
3. The subset of super key is a candidate key under what condition ?
a) No proper subset is a super key
b) All subsets are super keys
c) Subset is a super key
d) Each subset is a super key


Answer:a
Explanation:The subset of a set cannot be the same set.Candidate key is a set from a super key which cannot be the whole of the super set
4. A _____ is a property of the entire relation, rather than of the individual tuples in which each tuple is unique.
a) Rows
b) Key
c) Attribute
d) Fields


Answer:b
Explanation:Key is the constraint which specifies uniqueness.
5. Which one of the following attribute can be taken as a primary key ?
a) Name
b) Street
c) Id
d) Department


Answer:c
Explanation:The attributes name , street and department can repeat for some tuples.But the id attribute has to be unique .So it forms a primary key.
6. Which one of the following cannot be taken as a primary key ?
a) Id
b) Register number
c) Dept_id
d) Street


Answer:d
Explanation:Street is the only attribute which can occur more than once.
7. A attribute in a relation is a foreign key if the _______ key from one relation is used as an attribute in that relation .
a) Candidate
b) Primary
c) Super
d) Sub


Answer:b
Explanation:The primary key has to be referred in the other relation to form a foreign key in that relation .
8. The relation with the attribute which is the primary key is referenced in another relation. The relation which has the attribute as primary key is called
a) Referential relation
b) Referencing relation
c) Referenced relation
d) Referred relation


Answer:b
Explanation:None.
9. The ______ is the one in which the primary key of one relation is used as a normal attribute in another relation .
a) Referential relation
b) Referencing relation
c) Referenced relation
d) Referred relation


Answer:c
Explanation:None.
10. A _________ integrity constraint requires that the values appearing in specified attributes of any tuple in the referencing relation also appear in specified attributes of at least one tuple in the referenced relation.
a) Referential
b) Referencing
c) Specific
d) Primary


Answer:a
Explanation:A relation, say r1, may include among its attributes the primary key of another relation, say r2. This attribute is called a foreign key from r1, referencing r2. The relation r1 is also called the referencing relation of the foreign key dependency, and r2 is called the referenced relation of the foreign key
x

10 DBMS MCQ4

1. A relational database consists of a collection of
a) Tables
b) Fields
c) Records
d) Keys
Answer:a
Explanation:Fields are the column of the relation or tables.Records are each row in relation.Keys are the constraints in a relation .

2. A ________ in a table represents a relationship among a set of values.
a) Column
b) Key
c) Row
d) Entry
Answer:c
Explanation:Column has only one set of values.Keys are constraints and row is one whole set of attributes.Entry is just a piece of data.

3. The term _______ is used to refer to a row.
a) Attribute
b) Tuple
c) Field
d) Instance
Answer:b
Explanation:Tuple is one entry of the relation with several attributes which are fields.

4. The term attribute refers to a ___________ of a table.
a) Record
b) Column
c) Tuple
d) Key
Answer:b
Explanation:Attribute is a specific domain in the relation which has entries of all tuples.

5. For each attribute of a relation, there is a set of permitted values, called the ________ of that attribute.
a) Domain
b) Relation
c) Set
d) Schema
Answer:a
Explanation:The values of the attribute should be present in the domain.Domain is a set of values permitted .

6. Database __________ , which is the logical design of the database, and the database _______,which is a snapshot of the data in the database at a given instant in time.
a) Instance, Schema
b) Relation, Schema
c) Relation, Domain
d) Schema, Instance
Answer:d
Explanation:Instance is a instance of time and schema is a representation.

7.Course(course_id,sec_id,semester)
Here the course_id,sec_id and semester are __________ and course is a _________ .
a) Relations, Attribute
b) Attributes, Relation
c) Tuple, Relation
d) Tuple, Attributes
Answer:b
Explanation:The relation course has a set of attributes course_id,sec_id,semester .

8. Department (dept name, building, budget) and Employee (employee_id , name, dept name,salary)
Here the dept_name attribute appears in both the relations .Here using common attributes in relation schema is one way of relating ___________ relations.
a) Attributes of common
b) Tuple of common
c) Tuple of distinct
d) Attributes of distinct
Answer:c
Explanation:Here the relations are connected by the common attributes.

9. A domain is atomic if elements of the domain are considered to be ____________ units.
a) Different
b) Indivisbile
c) Constant
d) Divisible
Answer:b
Explanation:None.

10. The tuples of the relations can be of ________ order.
a) Any
b) Same
c) Sorted
d) Constant
Answer:a
Explanation:The values only count .The order of the tuples does not matter.

09 OS MCQ 3

3-1 Which of the following file format supports in Windows 7?
A) NTFS
B) BSD
C) EXT
D) All of the above

3-2 The Primary job of the operating system is
A) Manage Commands
B) Manage Users
C) Manage Programs
D) Manage Resources

3-3 What is the meaning of “Hibernate” in Windows XP/Windows 7?
A) Restart the Computer in safe mode
B) Restart the Computer in hibernate mode
C) Shutdown the Computer terminating all the running applications
D) Shutdown the Computer without closing the running applications

3-4 Who is called a supervisor of computer activity?
A) Memory
B) Operating System
C) I/O Devices
D) Control Unit

3-5 Virtual Memory is
A) Extremely Large Main memory
B) Extremely Large Secondary memory
C) An illusion of extremely large main memory
D) An illusion of extremely large secondary memory

3-6 Operating System manages
A) Memory
B) Processor
C) I/O devices
D) All of the above

3-7 What should be the first step while OS upgrading?
A) Delete old Operating System
B) Backup old Operating System
C) Backup Critical Data
D) Format Hard Disks

3-8 Unix Operating System is an
A) Multi User Operating System
B) Time Sharing Operating System
C) Multi Tasking Operating System
D) All the Above

3-9 In which type of the following OS, the response time is very crucial.
A) Network Operating System
B) Real Time Operating System
C) Batch Operating System
D) Unix Operating System

3-10 The file system “NTFS” stands for
A) New Type File System
B) Never Terminated File System
C) New Technology File System
D) Non Terminated File System
 Answers
1 – A 2 – D 3 – D 4 – B 5 – C 
 6 – D 7 – C 8 – D 9 – B 10 – C

08 OS MCQ 2

2-1. When a computer is first turned on or restarted, a special type of
absolute loader called ____ is executed
A. Compile and Go loader
B. Boot loader
C. Bootstrap loader
D. Relating loader

2-2. Which of the following Operating systems is better for
implementing a Client-Server network
A. MS DOS
B. Windows 95
C. Windows 98
D. Windows 2000

2-3. The operating system manages
A. Memory
B. Processes
C. Disks and IO devices
D. all of the above

2-4. Usually, in MSDOS, the primary hard disk drives has the drive letter ____
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

2-5. What is the function of an operating system?
A. Manages computer’s resources very efficiently
B. Takes care of scheduling jobs for execution
C. Manages the flow of data and instructions
D. All of the above

2-6. Which is not the function of the Operating System?
A. Memory management
B. Disk management
C. Application management
D. Virus Protection

2-7. Which Operating System doesn’t support networking between
computers?
A. Windows 3.1
B. Windows 95
C. Windows 2000
D. Windows NT

2-8. Which Operating System doesn’t support long file names?
A. OS2
B. Windows 95
C. MS-DOS
D. Windows NT

2-9. Which file keeps commands to execute automatically when OS is
started?
A. command.com
B. any batch file
C. autoexec.bat
D. config.sys

2-10. What should be the extension to execute files?
A. EXE
B. BAT
C. COM
D. All of the above
Answers
1 – C 2 – D   3 – D   4 – C   5 – D   
6 – D   7 – A   8 – C   9 – C   10 – D

07 OS MCQ 1

1-1. ______ is used in operating system to separate mechanism from policy
A. Single level implementation
B. Two level implementation
C. Multi level implementation
D. None

1-2. The operating system creates _____ from the physical computer
A. Virtual space
B. Virtual computers
C. Virtual device
D. None

1-3. ______ shares characteristics with both hardware and software
A. Operating system
B. Software
C. Data
D. None

1-4. Multiprogramming systems:
A. Are easier to develop than single programming systems
B. Execute each job faster
C. Execute more jobs in the same time period
D. Are used only one large mainframe computers.
1-5. Which is the first program run on a computer when the computer boots up?
A. System software
B. Operating system
C. System operations
D. None

1-6. Which is built directly on the hardware?
A. Computer Environment
B. Application Software
C. Operating System
D. Database System

1-7. Which of the following Operating System does not implement
multitasking truly?
A. Windows 98
B. Windows NT
C. Windows XP
D. MS DOS

1-8. Which runs on computer hardware and serve as platform for other software to run on?
A. Operating System
B. Application Software
C. System Software
D. All

1-9. Which is the layer of a computer system between the hardware and the user program
A. Operating environment
B. Operating system
C. System environment
D. None

1-10. The primary purpose of an operating system is:
A. To make the most efficient use of the computer hardware
B. To allow people to use the computer,
C. To keep systems programmers employed
D. To make computers easier to use

Answers
1 – B  2 – B  3 – A 4 – C  5 – B 
 6 – C  7 – D  8 – A  9 – B  10 – A

06 COMP N/W MCQ 3

*NOTE:ANSWER KEY AT BOTTOM OF PAGE

3-1. Why IP Protocol is considered as unreliable?
A. A packet may be lost
B. Packets may arrive out of order
C. Duplicate packets may be generated
D. All of the above

3-2. What is the minimum header size of an IP packet?
A. 16 bytes
B. 10 bytes
C. 20 bytes
D. 32 bytes

3-3. Which of following provides reliable communication?
A. TCP
B. IP
C. UDP
D. All of the above

3-4. What is the address size of IPv6 ?
A. 32 bit
B. 64 bit
C. 128 bit
D. 256 bit

3-5. What is the size of Network bits & Host bits of Class A of IP
address?
A. Network bits 7, Host bits 24
B. Network bits 8, Host bits 24
C. Network bits 7, Host bits 23
D. Network bits 8, Host bits 23

3-6. What does Router do in a network?
A. Forwards a packet to all outgoing links
B. Forwards a packet to the next free outgoing link
C. Determines on which outing link a packet is to be forwarded
D. Forwards a packet to all outgoing links except the originated link

3-7. The Internet is an example of
A. Cell switched network
B. circuit switched network
C. Packet switched network
D. All of above

3-8. What does protocol defines?
A. Protocol defines what data is communicated.
B. Protocol defines how data is communicated.
C. Protocol defines when data is communicated.
D. All of above

3-9. What is the uses of subnetting?
A. It divides one large network into several smaller ones
B. It divides network into network classes
C. It speeds up the speed of network
D. None of above

3-10. Repeater operates in which layer of the OSI model?
A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. Network layer
D. Transport layer


ANSWER
 1 – D
 2 – C
 3 – A
 4 – C
 5 – A
 6 – C
 7 – C
 8 – D
 9 – A
 10 – A

05 COMP N/W MCQ 2

2-1 Each IP packet must contain
A. Only Source address
B. Only Destination address
C. Source and Destination address
D. Source or Destination address

ANSWER:-C


2-2 Bridge works in which layer of the OSI model?
A. Appliation layer
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Datalink layer

ANSWER:-D



2-3 _______ provides a connection-oriented reliable service for sending
messages
A. TCP
B. IP
C. UDP
D. All of the above

ANSWER:-A



2-4 Which layers of the OSI model are host-to-host layers?
A. Transport, Session, Persentation, Application
B. Network, Transport, Session, Presentation
C. Datalink, Network, Transport, Session
D. Physical, Datalink, Network, Transport

ANSWER:-A



2-5 Which of the following IP address class is Multicast
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

ANSWER:-D



2-6 Which of the following is correct regarding Class B Address of IP
address
A. Network bit – 14, Host bit – 16
B. Network bit – 16, Host bit – 14
C. Network bit – 18, Host bit – 16
D. Network bit – 12, Host bit – 14

ANSWER:-A



2-7 The last address of IP address represents
A. Unicast address
B. Network address
C. Broadcast address
D. None of above

ANSWER:-C



2-8 How many bits are there in the Ethernet address?
A. 64 bits
B. 48 bits
C. 32 bits
D. 16 bits

ANSWER:-B



2-9 How many layers are in the TCP/IP model?
A. 4 layers
B. 5 layers
C. 6 layers
D. 7 layers

ANSWER:-A



2-10 Which of the following layer of OSI model also called end-to-end
layer?
A. Presentation layer
B. Network layer
C. Session layer
D. Transport layer

ANSWER:-D