POST 48 Data Warehousing and Data Mining

11. Data modeling technique used for data marts is
(a) Dimensional modeling
(b) ER – model
(c) Extended ER – model
(d) Physical model
(e) Logical model.

12. A warehouse architect is trying to determine what data must be included in the warehouse. A meeting has been arranged with a business analyst to understand the data requirements, which of the following should be included in the agenda?
(a) Number of users
(b) Corporate objectives
(c) Database design
(d) Routine reporting
(e) Budget.

13. An OLAP tool provides for
(a) Multidimensional analysis
(b) Roll-up and drill-down
(c) Slicing and dicing
(d) Rotation
(e) Setting up only relations.

14. The Synonym for data mining is
(a) Data warehouse
(b) Knowledge discovery in database
(c) ETL
(d) Business intelligence
(e) OLAP.

15. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) A fact table describes the transactions stored in a DWH
(b) A fact table describes the granularity of data held in a DWH
(c) The fact table of a data warehouse is the main store of descriptions of the transactions stored in a DWH
(d) The fact table of a data warehouse is the main store of all of the recorded transactions over time
(e) A fact table maintains the old records of the database.

16. Most common kind of queries in a data warehouse
(a) Inside-out queries
(b) Outside-in queries
(c) Browse queries
(d) Range queries
(e) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) above.

17. Concept description is the basic form of the
(a) Predictive data mining
(b) Descriptive data mining
(c) Data warehouse
(d) Relational data base
(e) Proactive data mining.

18. The apriori property means
(a) If a set cannot pass a test, all of its supersets will fail the same test as well
(b) To improve the efficiency the level-wise generation of frequent item sets
(c) If a set can pass a test, all of its supersets will fail the same test as well
(d) To decrease the efficiency the level-wise generation of frequent item sets
(e) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) above.

19. Which of following form the set of data created to support a specific short lived business situation?
(a) Personal data marts
(b) Application models
(c) Downstream systems
(d) Disposable data marts
(e) Data mining models.

20. What is/are the different types of Meta data?
I. Administrative.
II. Business.
III. Operational.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (II) and (III) above
(c) Both (I) and (II) above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

Answers


      Ans  AND Explanation

11. A Data modeling technique used for data marts is Dimensional modeling.

12. D Routine reporting should be included in the agenda.

13. C An OLAP tool provides for Slicing and dicing.

14. C The synonym for data mining is Knowledge discovery in Database.

15. D The fact table of a data warehouse is the main store of all of the recorded transactions over time is the correct statement.

16. A The Most common kind of queries in a data warehouse is Inside-out queries.

17. B Concept description is the basis form of the descriptive data mining.

18. B The apriori property means to improve the efficiency the level-wise generation of frequent item sets.

19. D Disposable Data Marts is the form the set of data created to support a specific short lived business situation.

20. E The different types of Meta data are Administrative, Business and Operational.



Post No 47


1.A collection of data designed to be used by different people is called a/an
(a)Organization
(b)Database
(c)Relationship
(d)Schema
(e)None of the above.


1.Answer : (b) Explaination: A collection of data designed to be used by different people is called a data base.


2.Which of the following is the oldest database model? (a)Relational
(b)Deductive
(c)Physical
(d)Network
(e)Hierarchical.


2.Answer : (d) Explaination: Network Model is the oldest database model.


3.Which of the following schemas does define a view or views of the database for particular users?
(a)Internal schema
(b)Conceptual schema
(c)Physical schema
(d)External schema
(e)Outer schema.


3.Answer : (d) Explaination: External Schema define a view or views of the database for particular users.


4.Which of the following is an attribute that can uniquely identify a row in a table?
(a)Secondary key
(b)Candidate key
(c)Foreign key
(d)Alternate key
(e)None of the above.


4.Answer : (b) Explaination: Candidate Key following is an attribute that can uniquely identify a row in a table.


5.Which of the following is the process of selecting the data storage and data access characteristics of the database?
(a)Logical database design
(b)Physical database design
(c)Testing and performance tuning
(d)Evaluation and selecting
(e)External database design.

 
5.Answer : (b) Explaination: Physical database design is the process of selecting the data storage and data access characteristics of the database.


6.Which of the following terms does refer to the correctness and completeness of the data in a database?
(a)Data security
(b)Data constraint
(c)Data independence
(d)Data model
(e)Data integrity.

 
6.Answer : (e) Explaination: Data integrity refer to the correctness and completeness of the data in a database.

7.The relationship between DEPARTMENT and EMPLOYEE is a
(a)One-to-one relationship
(b)One-to-many relationship
 (c)Many-to-many relationship
(d)Many-to-one relationship
 (e)None of the above.

 
7.Answer : (b) Explaination:: The relationship between DEPARTMENT and EMPLOYEE is a one-to-many relationship.


8.A table can be logically connected to another table by defining a (a)Super key
(b)Candidate key
(c)Primary key
(d)Unique key
(e)Common attribute.

 
8.Answer : (c) Explaination: A table can be logically connected to another table by defining a Primary Key.


9.If the state of the database no longer reflects a real state of the world that the database is supposed to capture, then such a state is called
 (a)Consistent state
(b)Parallel state
 (c)Durable state
 (d)Atomic state
(e)Inconsistent state.


9.Answer : (e) Explaination: If the state of the database no longer reflects a real state of the world that the database is supposed to capture, then such a state is called in consistent state.


10.Ensuring isolation property is the responsibility of the (a)Recovery-management component of the DBMS (b)Concurrency-control component of the DBMS
(c)Transaction-management component of the DBMS
(d)Buffer management component in DBMS
(e)Query processor in DBMS.


10.Answer : (b) Explaination: Ensuring isolation property is the responsibility of the concurrency-control component of the DBMS

Post No 46



1. Which of the following is the most important when deciding on the data structure of a data mart?
(a) XML data exchange standards
(b) Data access tools to be used
 (c) Metadata naming conventions
(d) Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) tool to be used
(e) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) above.

1. B Data access tools to be used when deciding on the data structure of a data mart.
2. The process of removing the deficiencies and loopholes in the data is called as
 (a) Aggregation of data
(b) Extracting of data
(c) Cleaning up of data.
(d) Loading of data
(e) Compression of data.

2. C The process of removing the deficiencies and loopholes in the data is called as cleaning up of data.

3. Which one manages both current and historic transactions?
 (a) OLTP
(b) OLAP
(c) Spread sheet
 (d) XML
(e) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) above.
 
3. B Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) manages both current and historic transactions.

4. Which of the following is the collection of data objects that are similar to one another within the same group?
(a) Partitioning
(b) Grid
(c) Cluster
(d) Table
(e) Data source.
 
4. C Cluster is the collection of data objects that are similar to one another within the same group.

5. Which of the following employees data mining techniques to analyze the intent of a user query, provided additional generalized or associated information relevant to the query?
(a) Iceberg query method
(b) Data analyzer
(c) Intelligent query answering
(d) DBA
(e) Query parser.
 
5. C Intelligent Query Answering employee’s data mining techniques to analyze the intent of a user query provided additional generalized or associated information relevant to the query.

6. Which of the following process includes data cleaning, data integration, data selection, data transformation, data mining, pattern evolution and knowledge presentation?
(a) KDD process
(b) ETL process
(c) KTL process
(d) MDX process
(e) None of the above.

6. A KDD Process includes data cleaning, data integration, data selection, data transformation, data mining, pattern evolution, and knowledge presentation.

7. At which level we can create dimensional models?
(a) Business requirements level
 (b) Architecture models level
 (c) Detailed models level
(d) Implementation level
(e) Testing level.
 
7. B Dimensional models can be created at Architecture models level.

8. Which of the following is not related to dimension table attributes?
(a) Verbose
 (b) Descriptive
 (c) Equally unavailable
(d) Complete
(e) Indexed.
 
8. C Equally unavailable is not related to dimension table attributes.
 
9. Data warehouse bus matrix is a combination of
(a) Dimensions and data marts
(b) Dimensions and facts
 (c) Facts and data marts
 (d) Dimensions and detailed facts
 (e) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) above.

9. A Data warehouse bus matrix is a combination of Dimensions and data marts.

10. Which of the following is not the managing issue in the modeling process?
 (a) Content of primary units column
 (b) Document each candidate data source
(c) Do regions report to zones
(d) Walk through business scenarios
 (e) Ensure that the transaction edit flat is used for analysis.
10. E Ensure that the transaction edit flat is used for analysis is not the managing issue in the modeling process.

POST NO 45 UML

Unified Modelling Language



1. Object oriented analysis and design can be handled by the one who knows UML.
a) True
b) False


Answer: b
Explanation: The Unified Modeling Language includes a set of graphic notation techniques to create visual models of object-oriented software-intensive systems.
2. At Conceptual level Class diagrams should include
a) operations only
b) attributes only
c) both operations and attributes
d) none of the mentioned


Answer: b
Explanation: In software engineering, a class diagram in the Unified Modeling Language (UML) is a type of static structure diagram that describes the structure of a system by showing the system’s classes, their attributes, operations, and the relationships among objects.
3. Select the statement true for activity diagrams.
a) They can be used to discover parallel activities
b) They are used to depict workflow for a particular business activity
c) Activity diagram do not tell who does what and are difficult to trace back to object models
d) All of the mentioned


Answer: d
Explanation: Activity diagrams are graphical representations of workflows of step wise activities and actions with support for choice, iteration and concurrency.
4. Constraints can be represented in UML by
a) {text}
b) [text].
c) Constraint
d) None of the mentioned


Answer: a
Explanation: Constraints are represented by {text string}.
5. What is an object?
a) An object is an instance of a class
b) An object includes encapsulation of data
c) An object is not an instance of a class
d) All of the mentioned


Answer: a
Explanation: An object is an instance of a class.
6. What is an abstract class?
a) A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances
b) A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances
c) A class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances
d) All of the mentioned


Answer: c
Explanation: An abstract type is a type in a nominative type system which cannot be instantiated directly.
7. Which of the following are the valid relationships in Use Case Diagrams
a) Generalization
b) Include
c) Extend
d) All of the mentioned


Answer: d
Explanation: Generalization, include, extend all of these are valid relationships in use case diagrams.
8. Which of the following statement(s) is true about interaction diagrams?
a) Interaction diagrams are at their best when they deal with one main design flow and not multiple variants that can happen
b) Interaction diagrams are good at designing part or all of one use case’s functionality across multiple objects
c) Interaction diagrams allow the analyst to show iteration and conditional execution for messaging between objects
d) All of the mentioned


Answer: d
Explanation: Interaction diagram is used to describe some type of interactions among the different elements in the model. So this interaction is a part of dynamic behaviour of the system.
9. UML interfaces are used to:
a) specify required services for types of objects
b) program in Java, but not in C++ or Smalltalk
c) define executable logic to reuse across classes
d) define an API for all classes


Answer: a
Explanation: An interface is like a template design for a class that contains no data or implementation; only definitions for methods, properties etc.
10. Referring to the attached diagram, the arrow indicates:
a) Navigability
b) Dependency
c) Association
d) Refers to


Answer: a
Explanation: The arrows describe the ways you can navigate.

----------------------------
----------------------------
1. Which of the following is a building block of UML?
a) Things
b) Relationships
c) Diagrams
d) All of the mentioned


Answer: d
Explanation: All are the building blocks of UML which are further sub-categorized.
2. Classes and interfaces are a part of
a) Structural things
b) Behavioral things
c) Grouping things
d) Annotational things


Answer: a
Explanation: Structural things are mostly static parts of a model, representing elements that are either conceptual or physical.
3.What is a collection of operations that specify a service of a class or component?
a) Use Case
b) Actor
c) Interface
d) Relationship


Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4. What is a physical element that exists at run time in UML?
a) A node
b) An interface
c) An activity
d) None of the mentioned


Answer: a
Explanation: A node represents a computational resource.
5. What can be requested from any object of the class to affect behavior?
a) object
b) attribute
c) operation
d) instance


Answer: c
Explanation: An operation is the implementation of a service that can be requested from any object of the class to affect behavior.
6. Which things are dynamic parts of UML models?
a) Structural things
b) Behavioral things
c) Grouping things
d) Annotational things


Answer: b
Explanation: These are the verbs of a model, representing behavior over time and space.
7. Which diagram in UML emphasizes the time-ordering of messages?
a) Activity
b) Sequence
c) Collaboration
d) Class


Answer: b
Explanation: This diagram is a model describing how groups of objects collaborate in some behavior over time.
8. Object diagram captures the behavior of a single use case.
a) True
b) False


Answer: b
Explanation: Sequence Diagram is responsible for this.
9. If you are working on real-time process control applications or systems that involve concurrent processing, you would use a
a) Activity diagram
b) Sequence diagram
c) Statechart diagram
d) Object diagram


Answer: c
Explanation: A statechart diagram shows a state machine, consisting of states, transitions, events, and activities.
10. Which diagram shows the configuration of run-time processing elements?
a) Deployment diagram
b) Component diagram
c) Node diagram
d) ER-diagram


Answer: a
Explanation: A Deployment diagram shows the configuration of run-time processing elements and the software components, processes, and objects.
11. Which things in UML are the explanatory parts of UML models?
a) Structural things
b) Behavioral things
c) Grouping things
d) Annotational things


12. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”a structural relationship that specifies that objects of one thing are connected to objects of another”?
a) Association
b) Aggregation
c) Realization
d) Generalization


Answer: a
Explanation: None.
13. What refers to the value associated with a specific attribute of an object and to any actions or side?
a) Object
b) State
c) Interface
d) None of the mentioned


Answer: b
Explanation: In a state chart diagram, effects occur when the attribute’s value changes.

POST NO 44 TOTAL 30 MCQ MIXED

30 MCQ MIXED
Q. _________ model consists of the particular types of services that you can access on a cloud computing platform.
a) Service
b) Deployment
c) Application
d) None of the mentioned
 Answer: a
Explanation: Service models describe the type of service that the service provider is offering.

Q. The part of machine level instruction, which tells the central processor what has to be done, is

A. Operation code
B. Address
C. Locator
D. Flip-Flop
E. None of the above
Answer:  A

Q. ________ dimension corresponds to two different states in the eight possible cloud forms.
a) Physical location of data
b) Ownership
c) Security boundary
d) None of the mentioned


 Answer: d
Explanation: The sourcing dimension addresses the deliverer of the service.

Q.How many digits of the DNIC (Data Network Identification Code) identify the country?

A. first three
B. first four
C. first five
D. first six
E. None of the above
Answer:  A
Q.A report generator is used to

A. update files
B. print files on paper
C. data entry
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer:  B
Q. Point out the correct statement :
a) The use of the word “cloud” makes reference to the two essential concepts
b) Cloud computing abstracts systems by pooling and sharing resources
c) cloud computing is nothing more than the Internet
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Abstraction and Virtualization are the two essential concepts.

Q. ________ refers to the location and management of the cloud’s infrastructure.
a) Service
b) Deployment
c) Application
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The deployment model tells you where the cloud is located and for what purpose.

Q. Point out the correct statement :
a) A deployment model defines the purpose of the cloud and the nature of how the cloud is located
b) Service model defines the purpose of the cloud and the nature of how the cloud is located
c) Cloud Square Model is meant to show is that the traditional notion of a network boundary being the network’s firewall no longer applies in cloud computing
d) All of the mentioned


Answer: a
Explanation: Four types of deployment models exist.

Q. Which of the following is deployment model ?
a) public
b) private
c) hybrid
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Public, private, community, and hybrid clouds are deployment models.

Q. Which of the following is provided by ownership dimension of Cloud Cube Model ?
a) Proprietary
b) Owner
c) P
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: P stands for Proprietary ownership.
 
Q.Which of the following refers to the associative memory?

A. the address of the data is generated by the CPU
B. the address of the data is supplied by the users
C. there is no need for an address i.e. the data is used as an address
D. the data are accessed sequentially
E. None of the above
Answer:  C

Q.A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a form suitable for execution

A. assembler
B. linking loader
C. cross compiler
D. load and go
E. None of the above
Answer:  B

Q. Point out the wrong statement :
a) Cloud Computing has two distinct sets of models
b) Amazon has built a worldwide network of datacenters to service its search engine
c) Azure enables .NET Framework applications to run over the Internet
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Google has built mega data centres for its search engine.


Q.Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the device

A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Repeater
D. Modem
Answer:  B

Q. Which of the following is best known service model ?
a) SaaS
b) IaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The best-known service models are Software as a Service, Platform as a Service, and Infrastructure as a Service—the SPI model.
Q.Which of the following condition is used to transmit two packets over a medium at the same time?

A. Contention
B. Collision
C. Synchronous
D. Asynchronous
E. None of the above
Answer:  B

Q. The __________ model originally did not require a cloud to use virtualization to pool resources.
a) NEFT
b) NIST
c) NIT
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: NIST stands for National Institute of Standards and Technology.
.
Q.Which of the following is not a logical data-base structure?

A. tree
B. relational
C. network
D. chain
E. All of the above
Answer:  D

Q. _______ model attempts to categorize a cloud network based on four dimensional factors.
a) Cloud Square
b) Cloud Service
c) Cloud Cube
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Cloud Cube model is mainly used for secure collaboration.
Q. How many types of dimensions exists in Cloud Cube Model ?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Answer: d
Explanation: There are four types of dimensions in Cloud Cube.
Q. How many types of security boundary values exist in Cloud Cube model ?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None of the mentioned


Answer: b
Explanation: There are two types depending upon network firewall.
Q.Which of the following is a database administrator's function?

A. database design
B. backing up the database
C. performance monitoring
D. user coordination
E. All of the above
Answer:  E
Q. Point out the wrong statement :
a) Public cloud may be managed by the constituent organization(s) or by a third party
b) A community cloud may be managed by the constituent organization(s) or by a third party
c) Private clouds may be either on- or off-premises
d) None of the mentioned


Answer: a
Explanation: The public cloud infrastructure is available for public use alternatively for a large industry group.
Q. __________is a measure of whether the operation is inside or outside the security boundary or network firewall.
a) Per
b) P
c) Pre
d) All of the mentioned


Answer: d
Explanation: Per stands for Perimeterised.
Q. __________ cloud is one where the cloud has been organized to serve a common function or purpose.
a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) All of the mentioned


 Answer: c
Explanation: A community cloud may be managed by the constituent organization(s) or by a third party.

Q. A hybrid cloud combines multiple clouds where those clouds retain their unique identities, but are bound together as a unit.
a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) Hybrid


Answer: d
Explanation: A hybrid cloud may offer standardized or proprietary access to data and applications, as well as application portability.

Q.Primitive operations common to all record management systems include

A. Print
B. Sort
C. Look-up
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer:  C 

Q. Which of the following dimension is related to organization’s boundaries ?
a) Physical location of data
b) Ownership
c) Security boundary
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Internal (I) / External (E) determines your organization’s boundaries.

Q. The ________ cloud infrastructure is operated for the exclusive use of an organization.
a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) All of the mentioned


Answer: b
Explanation: The cloud may be managed by that organization or a third party.
Q.Each of data files has a _____ that describe the way the data is stored in the file.

A. File structure
B. Records
C. Fields
D. Database
E. None of the above
Answer:  A

Post No 43 Network Security

 Network Security
Most IMP 50
MCQ. Confidentiality with asymmetric-key cryptosystem has its own
A. Entities
B. Data
C. Problems
D. Translator
Answer C
MCQ. SHA-l has a message digest of
A. 160 bits
B. 512 bits
C. 628 bits
D. 820 bits
Answer A
MCQ. Message authentication is a service beyond
A. Message Confidentiality
B. Message Integrity
C. Message Splashing
D. Message Sending
Answer B
MCQ. In Message Confidentiality, transmitted message must make sense to only intended
A. Receiver
B. Sender
C. Modulor
D. Translator
Answer A
MCQ. A hash function guarantees integrity of a message. It guarantees that message has not be
A. Replaced
B. Over view
C. Changed
D. Violated
Answer C
MCQ. To check integrity of a message, or document, receiver creates the
A. Hash-Table
B. Hash Tag
C. Hyper Text
D. Finger Print
Answer B
MCQ. A digital signature needs a
A. Private-key system
B. Shared-key system
C. Public-key system
D. All of them
Answer C
MCQ. One way to preserve integrity of a document is through use of a
A. Eye-Rays
B. Finger Print
C. Biometric
D. X-Rays
Answer B
MCQ. A session symmetric key between two parties is used
A. Only once
B. Twice
C. Multiple times
D. Conditions dependant
Answer A
MCQ. Encryption and decryption provide secrecy, or confidentiality, but not
A. Authentication
B. Integrity
C. Privacy
D. All of above
Answer B
MCQ. MAC stands for
A. Message authentication code
B. Message arbitrary connection
C. Message authentication control
D. Message authentication cipher
Answer A
MCQ. Digest created by a hash function is normally called a
A. Modification detection code (MDC)
B. Modify authentication connection
C. Message authentication control
D. Message authentication cipher
Answer A
MCQ. Message confidentiality is using
A. Cipher Text
B. Cipher
C. Symmetric-Key
D. Asymmetric-Key
Answer D
MCQ. A sender must not be able to deny sending a message that was sent, is known as
A. Message Nonrepudiation
B. Message Integrity
C. Message Confidentiality
D. Message Sending
Answer A
MCQ. To preserve integrity of a document, both document and fingerprint are
A. Not Used
B. Unimportant
C. Needed
D. Not needed
Answer C
MCQ. When data must arrive at receiver exactly as they were sent, its called
A. Message Confidentiality
B. Message Integrity
C. Message Splashing
D. Message Sending
Answer B
MCQ. Message digest needs to be
A. public
B. private
C. kept secret
D. None
Answer C
MCQ. In Message Integrity, message digest needs to be kept
A. Secret
B. Low
C. High
D. Constant 0
Answer A
MCQ. In Message Integrity, SHA-l hash algorithms create an N-bit message digest out of a message of
A. 512 Bit Blocks
B. 1001 Bit Blocks
C. 1510 Bit Blocks
D. 2020 Bit Blocks
Answer A
MCQ. Message confidentiality or privacy means that sender and receiver expect
A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Authentication
D. Nonrepudiation
Answer B
MCQ. Message must be encrypted at sender site and decrypted at the
A. Sender Site
B. Site
C. Receiver site
D. Conferencing
Answer C 

Post No 42 CLOUD COMPUTING

CLOUD COMPUTING 
1. What is Cloud Computing replacing?
A. Corporate data centers
B. Expensive personal computer hardware
C. Expensive software upgrades
D. All of the above
Ans:D
2. What is the number one concern about cloud computing?
A. Too expensive
B. Security concerns
C. Too many platforms
D. Accessability
ANS:B
3. Which of these companies is not a leader in cloud computing?
A. Google
B. Amazon
C. Blackboard
D. Microsoft
ANS:C
4. Google Docs is a type of cloud computing.
A. True
B. False
ANS:A
5. Which one of these is not a cloud computing pricing model?
A. Free
B. Pay Per Use
C. Subscription
D. Ladder
E. Perpetual License
ANS:D
6. Which of these is not a major type of cloud computing usage?
A. Hardware as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Software as a Service
D. Infrastructure as a Service
ANS:A
7. An Internet connection is neccessary for cloud computing interaction.
A. True
B. False
ANS:A
8. Which is not a major cloud computing platform?
A. Google 101
B. IBM Deep blue
C. Microsoft Azure
D. Amazon EC2
ANS:B
9. “Cloud” in cloud computing represents what?
A. Wireless
B. Hard drives
C. People
D. Internet
ANS:D
10. Which of these should a company consider before implementing cloud computing technology?
A. Employee satisfaction
B. Potential cost reduction
C. Information sensitivity
D. All of the above
ANS:D
A. A way to organize desktop computers
B. Lightweight software that takes up little space on a hard drive
C. Computing resources that can be accessed on demand, like electricity from a utility
D. The World Wide Web
Ans: C
12. What widely used service is built on cloud-computing technology?
A. Twitter B. Skype
C. GmailD. YouTube
E. All of the above
Ans: E
13. Which of these techniques is vital for creating cloud-computing centers?
A. Virtualization
B. Transubstantiation
C. Cannibalization
D. Insubordination
Ans: A
14. An internal cloud is…
A. An overhanging threat
B. A career risk for a CIO
C. A cloud that sits behind a corporate firewall
D. The group of knowledge workers who use a social network for water-cooler gossip
Ans: C.
15. Match the provider with the cloud-based service.
A. Amazon1. Azure
B. IBM2. Elastic Compute Cloud
C. EMC3. Decho
D. Microsoft4. Cloudburst
ANS: A
16. Cloud computing embraces many concepts that were previously touted as the next big thing in
information technology. Which of these is not an antecedent of the cloud?
A. Software as a service
B. Utility computing
C. Remote hosted services
D. Grid computing
E. Desktop computing
Ans: E
17. IBM, EMC and Boeing Co. were among the companies signing what document whose title is reminiscent
of a famous political statement?
A. Declaration of Cloud Computing
B. The Rights of Cloud
C. Mein Cloud
D. Open Cloud Manifesto
Ans: D.
18. The term “cloud computing” is a metaphor that originated in what?
A. Graphical depiction of computer architectures
B. Meteorological symbolism
C. Worries about an unclear future for computing architectures
D. The idea that computer users trust in magic
Ans: A

19. Link the cloud-based service on the left with the desktop or server application it is designed to displace
on the right.
A. Google Docs1. Intel servers
B. Salesforce.com2. Microsoft Office
C. Mozy.com3. Oracle customer-relationship
management
D. Amazon EC24. Backup disk
Ans: A
20. What August event was widely seen as an example of the risky nature of cloud computing?
A. Spread of Conficker virus
B. Gmail outage for more than an hour
C. Theft of identities over the Internet
D. Power outages in the Midwest
Ans: B